Nazareth

===Greek {{transliteration|grc|Nazara}}===
Another theory holds that the Greek form {{wikt-lang|grc|Ναζαρά}} ({{transliteration|grc|Nazará}}), used in the [[Gospel of Matthew]] and [[Gospel of Luke]], may derive from an earlier [[Aramaic language|Aramaic]] form of the name, or from another [[Semitic language]] form.<ref name=Carruthp417>Carruth, 1996, p. [https://books.google.com/books?id=Y8ZnM0bt4CEC&pg=PA415 417] {{Webarchive|url=https://web.archive.org/web/20210528163521/https://books.google.com/books?id=Y8ZnM0bt4CEC&pg=PA415 |date=28 May 2021 }}.</ref> If there were a ''[[tsade]]'' (צ) in the original Semitic form, as in the later Hebrew forms, it would normally have been transcribed in Greek with a ''[[sigma]]'' (σ) instead of a ''[[zeta]]'' (ζ).<ref name=Carruthp415>{{cite book|title=Q 4:1–13,16: the temptations of Jesus : Nazara|first1=Shawn|last1=Carruth|first2=James McConkey|last2=Robinson|first3=Christoph|last3=Heil|publisher=Peeters Publishers|year=1996|isbn=90-6831-880-2|page=415}}</ref> This has led some scholars to question whether "Nazareth" and its cognates in the New Testament actually refer to the settlement known traditionally as Nazareth in Lower [[Galilee]].<ref>T. Cheyne, "Nazareth", in Encyclopaedia Biblica, 1899, col. 3358 f. For a review of the question see H. Schaeder, "Nazarenos, Nazoraios", in Kittel, ''Theological Dictionary of the New Testament'', IV:874 f.</ref> Such linguistic discrepancies may be explained, however, by "a peculiarity of the 'Palestinian' Aramaic dialect wherein a sade (ṣ) between two voiced (sonant) consonants tended to be partially assimilated by taking on a zayin (z) sound".<ref name=Carruthp415/>